Notifications Of Banking Exam 2015
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Thursday, August 13, 2015
Notifications Of Banking Exam 2015
RESERVE BANK GRADE 'A'/'B' OFFICER'S EXAMINATION
RESERVE BANK GRADE 'A'/'B' OFFICER'S EXAMINATION : ELIGIBILITY
Educational Qualifications :
i)A First Class Bachelor's Degree with a minimum of 60% marks or an equivalent grade OR
ii) A Second Class Master's Degree with a minimum of 55% marks or an equivalent grade OR iii) A Doctorate Degree with 50% marks in Master's Degree or equivalent grade OR iv) Chartered/Cost Accountant/Company Secretary (ACS) with a Bachelor's Degree OR v) A Post Graduate Diploma in Management from IIM only.
SC/ST/PH candidates having second class with a minimum of 50% marks or equivalent grade in Bachelor's Degree examination OR having a Post-graduate Degree or equivalent recognized qualification, are also eligible to apply.
Age: Between 21 and 30 years
For candidates possessing M.Phil./Ph.D. qualification, upper age limit will be 31 and 33 years respectively. For candidates having experience as an officer in Commercial Bank/Financial Institution in Public Sector, upper age limit is relaxed to the extent of number of years of such experience subject to a maximum of three years. For such candidates, upper age limit should not exceed 33 years including experience. For experience, probationary period will not be reckoned.
Upper Age limit is relaxable by :
(a) 3 years in the case of OBC candidates. (b) 5 years in the case of : i) SC/ ST candidates, ii) Ex-employees of banking institutions whose services had to be terminated for reasons of economy or as a result of bank going into liquidation and personnel retrenched from Government Offices after at least one year's service and applying through Employment Exchanges, iii) Ex-servicemen (including Emergency Commissioned Officers/Short Service Commissioned Officers) provided applicants have rendered at least five years continuous Military Service and have been released on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within one year) otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency or/on account of physical disability or have been released on account of physical disability attributable to Military Service or on invalidment, iv) Emergency Commissioned Officers/Short Service Commissioned Officers who have completed their initial period of assignment of five years of Military Service but whose assignment has been extended beyond five years and in whose case the Ministry of Defence issues certificates that they would be released on selection within three months from the date of receipt of offer of appointment, v) Candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in Kashmir Division of the State of Jammu and Kashmir. (c) 10 years for PH (Gen.); 13 years for PH (OBC) and 15 years for PH (SC/ST) candidate.
Selection to the posts is done through Written Examinations (WE) and Interview. Written exam will be held in two phases as under:
Phase I (Objective Type Test): This Paper is of 3 hours duration for 200 marks. The Paper consists tests of i) General Awareness ii) English Language iii) Quantitative Aptitude and iv) Reasoning.
Phase II (Descriptive Type Test): The Phase II Examination will be conducted only for those candidates who are successful in Phase I (Objective Type Test). The date and time-table will be intimated to the candidates concerned. The Examination will consist of three Descriptive Type papers -
Paper I - English
Paper II - Economic and Social Issues and Paper III - Finance and Managemen
Each of these papers is of 3 hours duration carrying 100 marks.
Phase I (except the test of English) and Papers II and III of Phase II will be set bilingually in Hindi and English. Phase I is Objective Type and only marking the correct choice is required. However, Papers II and III of Phase II can be answered either in Hindi or English at the candidate's option.
A candidate has to qualify in each of the Descriptive Papers separately. Candidates will be short-listed for interview based on the aggregate marks obtained only in Phase II - Papers I, II and III. The minimum cut off marks for being short-listed will be decided by the Board in relation to the number of vacancies. Candidates may answer the Interview either in Hindi or English at their option. Final selection will be based on the performance of the candidate in Phase II of the Written exam and Interview.
Candidates belonging to General Category, who had already appeared four times for Written Exam for post in the past, are not eligible to apply. No such restriction to candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC/PH.
RESERVE BANK GRADE 'A'/'B' OFFICER'S EXAMINATION : APPLICATION PROCEDURE
Application form can be obtained by paying a requisite amoun of Demand Draft favouring Reserve Bank of India and payable at Mumbai. No fee is payable by SC/ST/PH candidates. However, candidates from un-banked areas may pay fee by crossed Indian Postal Orders in favour of Reserve Bank of India payable at GPO, Mumbai. Fees sent separately not accompanied with proper application or payment in any other manner will not be accepted. Fees once paid will not be refunded. Candidates should write their name and address on the reverse of the Demand Draft and in the space provided for the purpose on the Postal Orders (if fee is payable) and enclose them to the application with a pin (should not be stapled). Candidates should ensure that all the entries have been correctly filled in and the Application submitted is duly signed. On the cover containing the Application, the post applied for, should be indicated.
Applications in the prescribed format and completd in all respect to be sent to General Manager, Reserve Bank of India Services Board, Post Bag No. 14501, Mumbai Central Post Office, Mumbai-400008
General Instructions
• Candidates should not enclose any certificates or copies thereof with the application. If at any stage it is found that any information in the application is false, the board has the permit to terminate the candidate.
• Application not accompanied by prescribed fees (unless exempted) OR Incomplete Application will be rejected by the board. • All educational qualifications must have been obtained from recognised universities/institutions in India or abroad. If grades are awarded instead of marks, candidates should clearly indicate its numerical equivalent. • Candidates already in service of Govt./Quasi-Govt. Organisations and Public Sector Banks /Undertakings will have to produce a "No Objection Certificate" from their employer, at the time of Interview. Before appointment in RBI, a proper discharge certificate from the employer will have to be produced. If the Application is required to be routed through the employer and in the process it reaches the Board's Office after the due date, it will not be considered even though submitted to the employer before the due date. In such cases, application marked ‘Advance Copy' should be sent to the Board's Office direct, together with fee and the regular copy (without fee) should be routed directly through the employer. • Candidates can select only one centre and must indicate its name and code number in the Application. Centre and dates of Written Exam are liable to be changed at the Board's discretion. In the event of cancellation of Written Exam at any centre, the Board may at its discretion, allot an alternative centre to the candidates concerned. Candidates admitted to the Written Exam will be intimated dates, time-table and venue of Written Exam , through Admission Letters (AL). Candidates will not be admitted to the Written Exam without ‘AL’. Request for change of centre will not be entertained. • Candidates will have to appear for the Written Exam at their expense. • Change of address, if any, should be informed to the Board immediately. • If a candidate does not receive Admission Letters for Written Exam or any other communication from the Board, he/she should contact the in-charge of the RBI office, (SBI office in case of Agartala, Aizawl, Imphal, Itanagar, Kohima, Port Blair and Shillong) during office hours, at the Examination Centre indicated in the Application along with a passport size signed photograph, one day before the date of examination for necessary guidance." • The posts are also open to the employees of RBI (Staff Candidates) who satisfy the eligibility criteria separately stipulated by the Bank. • Board shall not entertain requests from the candidates seeking advice about their eligibility to apply. • Canvassing in any form will be a disqualification. • In all matters regarding Eligibility, conduct of examinations, interviews, assessment, prescribing minimum qualifying standards in Written Exam and interview, in relation to number of vacancies and communication of result, the board's decision shall be final and binding on the candidates and no correspondence shall be entertained in this regard.
RESERVE BANK GRADE 'A'/'B' OFFICER'S EXAMINATION : SYLLABUS
Paper I - English: Essay, Précis writing, Comprehension, Business/Office Correspondence.
Paper II - Economic and Social Issues: Growth and Development - Measurement of growth : National Income and per capita income - Poverty Alleviation and Employment Generation in India - Sustainable Development and Environmental issues.Economic Reforms in India - Industrial and Labour Policy - Monetary and Fiscal Policy - Privatisation - Role of Economic Planning. Globalization - Opening up of the Indian Economy -Balance of Payments, Export-Import Policy - International Economic Institutions - IMF and World Bank - WTO -Regional Economic Co-operation. Social Structure in India - Multiculturalism - Demographic Trends - Urbanisation and Migration - Gender Issues - Social Justice : Positive Discrimination in favour of the under privileged - Social Movements - Indian Political System - Human Development - Social Sectors in India, Health and Education.
Paper III - Finance and Management: Finance :The Union Budget - Direct and Indirect taxes; Non-tax sources of revenue; Outlays; New Measures; Financial Sector Reforms; Capital Market, Money Market and Foreign Exchange Market; Stock Exchanges and their Regulation; Capital Market Intermediaries and their Regulation; Role of SEBI; Functions of the Money Market; Growth and Operation of the Money Market; The Foreign Exchange Market; From FERA to FEMA; Exchange Rate Management; Exchange Risk Management; Role of Banks and Financial Institutions in Economic Development; Regulation of Banks and Financial Institutions; Disinvestment in Public Sector Units.
Management : Management: its nature and scope; The Management Processes; Planning, Organisation, Staffing, Directing and Controlling; The Role of a Manager in an Organisation. Leadership: The Tasks of a Leader; Leadership Styles; Leadership Theories; A successful Leader versus an effective Leader. Human Resource Development: Concept of HRD; Goals of HRD; Performance appraisal - Potential appraisal and development -Feedback and Performance Counselling - Career Planning - Training and Development - Rewards - Employee Welfare. Motivation, Morale and Incentives: Theories of Motivation; How Managers Motivate; Concept of Morale; Factors determining Morale; Role of Incentives in Building up Morale. Communication: Steps in the Communication Process; Communication Channels; Oral versus Written Communication; Verbal versus non-verbal Communication; upward, downward and lateral Communication; Barriers to Communication, Role of Information Technology. Corporate Governance: Factors affecting Corporate Governance; Mechanisms of Corporate Governance.
The above syllabus is only indicative and not exhaustive. The questions in Papers II and III will be basic in nature.
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Sunday, November 8, 2009
SBI Bank Clerk Numerical Ability Exam Paper With Answers 2007
1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 28 minutes
(d) 34 minutes
2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
(a) 4096
(b) 8192
(c) 512
(d) 1024
3. Find the number missing at question mark:
10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100
(b) 103
(c) 78
(d) 128
4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?
(a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes
5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6
6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18
7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
(a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45
8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150
9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ……………
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14
10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
(a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17
11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ………….
(a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400
12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
(a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210
13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
(a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50
14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?
(a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds
15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be …….
(a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds
16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
(a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40
17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6
18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
(a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050
19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
(a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m
20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2
21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ……..
(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3
(c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution
22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
(a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2
23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?
(a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%
24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5
25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
(a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400
26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
(a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes
(c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes
27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
(a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes
28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
(a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300
29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?
(a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days
30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
(a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27
31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
(a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %
32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:
(a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2
33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0
34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450
35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
(a) Interior of the triangle
(b) Midpoint of the diameter
(c) Exterior of the triangle
(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle
36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
(a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180
37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
(a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre
38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?
(a) 3r (b) 4r (c) v5r (d) v3r
39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
(a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6
40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3v2, 6, 6v2 ?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) v2 (d) v3
41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45
42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr
43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
(a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32
44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
(a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm
45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ……
(a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57
46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30
47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21
48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
(a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750
49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
(a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510
50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
(a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31
Answers
1 A 11 B 21 C 31 D 41 A 2 B 12 A 22 B 32 D 42 A 3 A 13 D 23 A 33 B 43 B 4 B 14 D 24 C 34 D 44 C 5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 A 6 B 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 C 7 C 17 D 27 B 37 B 47 B 8 D 18 A 28 D 38 C 48 D 9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 B 10 B 20 B 30 B 40 C 50 B
SBI Bank Clerk Previous Year Solved Question Paper (2007)
SBI Bank Clerk Previous Year Solved Question Paper (2007)
(General Awareness)
1.Who amongst the following cricketers became the ninth indian to claim 150 or more wickets?
(a) A.Kumble
(b) A.Agarkar
(c) S.Tendulkar
(d) Harbhajan Singh
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
2. Who amongst the following returned to earth after a lomg 195 days stay in space ?
(a) Angei Brewer
(b) Mike Leinbach
(c) Shruti Vadera
(d) Sunita Williams
(e) None of these
Ans(d)
3. Japan PM shinzo Abe came to office last year with huge support in his favour. But since last few months he is facing problems in his political survival. Which ofthe following actions taken by him does / do not enjoy support of the people of Japan (Pick up the correctstatement) ?
1. Decision to postpone parliament elections.
2. Falling to control inflation which has gone to the level of 12% an unusual phenomenon in the history of Japan .
3. Decision to allow USA to make an army Base in some of its Islands where USA will have its nuclear war-heads
(a) Only 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 3
(e) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans(c)
4. European leaders agree on traty was the news in leading news paper in recent past .
Which of the following was the treaty on which leadres were of diverse views (Pick up the
correct statement) ?
1. The treaty was to make the EURO money a universal currency for all financial / monetary
transaction done by all the member countries w.e.f. April 2009.
2. Treaty was to defunct constitution of the Eropean Union by a new one.
3. Poland one of the newest members of the union was threatening to use its veto power if any
change is done in the present set up of the organization.
(a) only 1
(b) only 2
(c) only 3
(d) Both 1 and 2
(e) Both 2 and 3
Ans(b)
5. “Rajpaksha threatens to resolve Lanka parliament” was the news in leading newspaper a few days back . Which of the following was the reason owing to which president threatens to take a drastic step ? (pick up the correct statements).
1. A number of MPs from Sri Lanka Freedom party defecting to join another party launched by another group of politicians.
2. A group of politicians under the leadership of former president Chandrika Kumartunga demanding the postponement of elctions for the post of president due in the month of November 2007 so that Chandrika can came back from exile and contest for the same.
3. Rajapaksha wants general public and also MPs to support his formula on peace with LTTE which is not accepatble to most of the MPs.
(a) All 1,2 and 3
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) Both 1 and 2
(e) Only 1
Ans(a)
6. Madhesi national liberation front (MNLF) is an organixation active in which of the following
countries ?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Myanmar
(c) Uganda
(d) Iran
(e) Nepal
Ans(e)
7. As per the Economic survey 2006-07 the food grain production may not touch the target fixed for the year. What is the atrget of the same set for the period?
(a) 100 million tonnes
(b) 220 million tonnes
(c) 175 million tonnes
(d) 250 million tonnes
(e) 320 million tonnes
Ans(b)
8. Which of the following sector banks brought its equity share (follow on public issue) for the price was set as Rs. 940 per equity ?
(a) ICICI Bank
(b) Karnataka Bank
(c) UTI Bank
(d) HDFC Bank
(e) None of these
Ans(a)
9. Prime minister of India recently unveiled an agricultural package during his visit to 53rd meeting of the National Development Concil. What is the size of the package >
(a) Rs. 10,000 Crores
(b) Rs. 1s,000 Crores
(c) Rs. 20,000 Crores
(d) Rs. 25,000 Crores
(e) Rs. 30,000 Crores
Ans(d)
10. Which of the following States achieved 100% financial inclusion (each and every family in the state has atleast one bank account). ?
(a) Delhi
(b) Maharashtra
(c) West Bengal
(d) Kerala
(e) None of these
Ans(d)
Some Other Questions And Answers:-
1. Which of the following Departments of the Govt. of India is helping banks in disbursement of rural credit by the bank ?
(A) Railways
(B) State Road Transpots
(C) Post and Telegraph
(D) Ministry of Health
(E) None of these
Ans (E)
2. Which of the following organization/agencies has established a fund known as ” investor production fund” ?
(A) SEBI
(B) NABARD
(C) Bombay stock exchange
(D) AMFI
(E)None of these
Ans (C)
3.Who amongst the following is the Head of the RBI at present ?
(A) Mr. M.V.Kamath
(B) Mr. Y.V.Reddy
(C) Mr. N.R.Narayanmurthy
(D) Mr.O.P.Bhatt
(E)None of these
Ans (B)
4. Mjority of rural people still prefer to go to which of the following for their credit needs ?
(A) Money lenders
(B) Foreign Bankers
(C) NABARD
(D) RBI
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
5. india has different categories of commercial banks.Which of the following is NOT one such categories ?
(A) Private Banks
(B) Commodities Banks
(C) Nationalized Banks
(D) Cooperative Banks
(E) Foreign Banks
Ans (B)
6.Which of the following types of Banks are allowed to operate foreign currency accounts ?
(1) Foreign Banks
(2) Regional Rural Banks
(3) Nationalized Banks
(A) Only i
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2and 3
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
7. Which of the following countries does not play International Cricket ?
(A) Russia
(B) England
(C) South Africa
(D) Pakistan
(E) India
Ans (A)
8. The money which Govt. of India spends on the development of infrastructure in country comes from the which of the following sources ?
[Pick up the correct Statement(s)]
(1) Loan from World Bank/ADB etc
(2) Taxws collected from the people
(3) Loan from the RBI
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1,2 and 3
Ans (E)
9. The Securities and Exchange Board Of India (SEBI) recently imposed a restriction on money flow in equity through ‘P Notes’. What is the full form of ‘P Notes’ ?
(A) Permanent Notes
(B) Perchase Notes
(C) Participatory-Notes
(D) Private Notes
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
10. Who amongst the following was the captain of the India cricket team who won thw Twenty-20 World Cup-2007 ?
(A) Yuvraj Singh
(B) M.S.Dhoni
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Saurav Ganguly
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
11. Mnay times we read in financial news paper about ‘FII’.What is the full form of ‘FII’?
(A) Final Investment in India
(B) Foreign Investment in India
(C) Formal Investment in India
(D) Fair Institutional Investment
(E) Foreign Institutional Investment
Ans (E)
12. Benazir Bhutto Is associated with which of the following parties
(A) Muslim League
(B) Pakistan Peoples Party
(C) Pakistan National Congress(D) Islamic Movement of Pakistan
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
13. One of the former prime ministers of which of the following countries was detained in house arrest for a short period after his/her returns from a long exile ?
(A) Germany
(B) France
(C) Pakistan
(D) Brazil
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
14. Who amongst the following leaders from USA visited Isarael and Palestinian West Bank so that a solution to the Isarael and palestinian problem can be worked out ?
(A) George Bush
(B) Al Gore
(C) Bill Clinton
(D) Condeleeza Rice
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
15. Justine Henin Won the women’s singles US Open Tennis Championship-2007 After defeating -
(A) Swetlana Kuznetsova
(B) Sania Mirza
(C) Dinara Safina
(D) Mathalie Dechy
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
16. As reported in papers the UN World Food Programmes stoped distributing food in Mogadishu Town after its local head was abducted by the Govt. soldiers of the country.Mogadishu is the capital town of-
(A) Tanzania
(B) Turkey
(C) Cuba
(D) Libya
(E) Somalia
Ans (E)
17. The financial markets of the which of the following countries were badly affected by sub-prime crisis ?
(A) Russia
(B) Brazil
(C) UK
(D) USA
(E)None of these
Ans (D)
18. which of the following countries in the world is the biggest consumer of gold ?
(A) USA
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Russia
(D) India
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
19. which of the following countries is NOT happy with the USA’s decision to award a cogressional Medal to Dalai Lama Oof Tibet ?
(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Nepal
(D) Myanmar
(E) China
Ans (E)
20. which of the following countries recently decided to launch a military action in Northern Iraq where many Kurdish PKK fighters are based and they are killed people from that country ?
(A) India
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh
(E) Turkey
Ans (E)
(Paper) Latest Reasoning Solved Question Paper: SBI Clerk Exam 2009
1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)
3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)
4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.
How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)
7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)
10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.
11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)
12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)
13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)
14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)
15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 – 541 – 654 – 953 – 983
16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)
17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)
18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)
19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)
20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’
21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :
Letters # Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol # 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.
26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.
31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?
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